Actually ‘ in context ‘ what the verse, and in fact the entire chapter is addressing…is ‘ the Israelites ‘…and any alien living among them…
The Law of Moses was a law given ‘ only ‘ to the Israelites, was only addressed to the Israelites, and had nothing at all to do with those who were not Israelites…
unless they were aliens living with the Israelites.
The Laws of Moses in no way applied to anyone other than ‘ god’s chosen people ‘…and those living among them.
So you can immediately discard the Law of Moses as having any authority ( if you give it any at all ) if you are not an Israelite or an alien living among them.
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Secondly…
Jesus was supposed to do away with the Law ( I know someone is going to quote the verse where he says he didn’t come to do away with the law but to fulfill it…again you have to read in context )….so Christians should not be referring to the Law at all…as it no longer applies…
Christians are not required to follow the Law….
they are to follow the instruction of Jesus and his Apostles.
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So…the whole argument regarding that verse is moot…unless you are an Israelite, or a guest living among them.
As the Laws of Moses are ‘ specifically ‘ and exclusively ‘ addressed to the Israelites ( god’s chosen people ), and those living among them.
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| Keep all my decrees and laws and follow them, so that the land where I am bringing you to live may not vomit you out. You must not live according to the customs of the nations I am going to drive out before you. |
You can’t just pick out a verse and use it out of context …the entire chapter is addressing the Israelites, and those living among them…and ‘ only ‘ them.
The Israelites did not even think in any way at all that the Law of Moses applied to Greeks, to Romans, to Egyptians, or any other nation but their own.
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